Ecclesiastical

Question 1

Is tithing taught in the New Testament?
 

The matter of tithing is never taught in the New Testament.  It is an Old Testament matter.  Even in the Old Testament, under law they were to give as able, and there were three tithings a year plus the freewill offerings, sin offerings, and sundry other sacrifices.  In the age of grace, we are to give systematically, proportionally, cheerfully, evaluatingly, and according to that which the individual has, and not what such an one does not have.

 R.J.

Question 2

   

 

Some churches have the Eucharist every week, month, bimonthly etc.  What is the bible evidence for any of them?

One of the normal answers is: The Lord said: “As oft as ye do it” and “for as often as ye eat this bread”.  Therefore, it is done every Sunday.  However, this does not answer the question without my reading into it other understandings.  By saying “as often”, did He mean daily, weekly, monthly or any other way?  

In this commentary by Paul on the institution, it is evident the Lord did not specify the time, i.e. 9:30 Sunday morning, nor the frequency.  It thus stands in contrast to the Passover which had a particular day and frequency, i.e. 14th of the month Nissan. 

The Greek word for “oft and often”, hosakis, does not help us determine frequency, for the word is only used in 1 Cor. 11:25 & 26; Rev. 11:6, and means “as many times soever”. 

Certain facts are evident:
1.     
It was mean to be a permanent function among the saints till He come.
     (1 Cor. 11:26)

2.      It was not “His dying request” but a legislative command. “This do”.
(Lk. 22:19; 1 Cor. 11:24)

What is the evidence as to how often it was done?  In the early church days it appears it was done daily, but by Acts 20:7 it indicates a weekly occurrence. 

Luke writes: “when the disciples came together to break bread”, and the word “when”, “sunagô” reads “when we were gathered together”. Such is the tense of the Greek word that it signifies a formal gathering of the disciples. 

With this in view, the remembrance of the Lord was to be a weekly activity on the first day of the week, this then being the apostolic practice as recorded by the Holy Spirit, we have no foundation for making it a by-weekly, monthly etc. celebration. 

It must be observed that the Lord has marked the first day of the week as distinct for, it was the day the Lord rose from the dead (Mk. 16:9); Jn. 20:19, eight days later He revealed Himself to His own (Jn. 20:26), which was the first day.  Then the day of Pentecost was on the first day, being the day after the Sabbath, the saints came together to break bread (Acts 20:7), and on the first day they set aside their funds for the Lord (1 Cor. 16:2). 

This strongly intimated that the Lord’s Supper was observed on the first day of every week.
R.J.
 

Question 3

 

Concerning the Lord’s supper, is there a limitation on the duration of the expression “until He come”?

It is so easy to make broad statements which are easily accepted.  Mr. W. E. Vine states: “it was designed to keep the hope of His return from Pentecost to the rapture” (Collected Writings) but gives no scripture to support the statement.  Most other writers say nothing about this point. 

This is the normal teaching but it is based on two assumptions. First: “until He comes”  refers to the Lord’s coming to the air and calls us at the rapture.  The second assumption is that those saved after the Lord comes for us will have no right to meet to remember the Lord. 

There must be the observation that the Greek word “erchomai” is used of the Lord’s coming to the earth (Matt. 25:13; 2 Thess. 1:10; Jude 14; Rev. 1:7); it is also used of His coming to the air (1 Cor. 4:5; Rev. 3:11; 16:15; 22:12, 20). Thus the word in itself does not indicate a specific coming. 

Of course, there is the argument that since this is not found in any of the general epistles (Heb. to Rev.), it has nothing to do with the church age.  If such is the case then nothing in them, with the exception of 3 John and Revelation, have any teaching for us.  This being so, we know nothing about a High Priest, Advocate, etc., etc. 

If we hold to the idea that the Lord’s Supper is only for this age because it was written to a Gentile church, then the “till He come” must be the rapture!  But where are we given scripture to support this argument? 

Paul writes: “When he shall come to be glorified in His saints” (2 Thess. 1:10), and that is the time the Lord comes to the earth!  

It is my understanding that in a world that rejects His Lordship (see the references in 1 Cor. 11:11,20,23,26,27,29,32), there will be those who will glorify Him as Lord despite the outward happenings until He comes and sets up His rule and reigns as Lord and King.
R.J.